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Summary of the Day

Bronchial Blockers for One-Lung Ventilation

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Question of the Day

A 24-year-old man with a history of T4 paraplegia is undergoing his first anesthetic for a urinary diversion due to a neurogenic bladder. As the surgeon makes the incision, his BP reaches 220/110 mmHg with a heart rate of 45 bpm. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate first step in treatment?

Question of the Day
A 24-year-old man with a history of T4 paraplegia is undergoing his first anesthetic for a urinary diversion due to a neurogenic bladder. As the surgeon makes the incision, his BP reaches 220/110 mmHg with a heart rate of 45 bpm. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate first step in treatment?
Your Answer
Correct Answer

Explanation

In a patient with a history of a spinal cord lesion higher than T7, marked hypertension and bradycardia is concerning for autonomic hyperreflexia. Normally, descending inhibitory impulses travel down the spinal cord to block reflex arcs to cutaneous, visceral, or proprioceptive stimuli. This arc is disrupted in spinal cord injury and can lead to autonomic instability, most notably severe hypertension followed by a sustained vagal response including bradycardia, vasodilation, and cutaneous flushing. Treatment is supportive, including stopping the inciting stimulus (ask surgeons to pause) and lowering the blood pressure to normal levels via vasodilators and assuring adequate levels of anesthesia.

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